Why do some people start receding with 30 or 40 even tho DHT level decreases then and also Testosterone Level that doesnt make sense. Should they lose they're dht sensible hair when dht its on his peak ?
The balding process in all predisposed men starts when they hit puberty
Because sensitivity to DHT increases
When you/people say sensitivity to DHT increases what do you mean? Is it simply an increased density of ARs or/and 5AR in the HFCs as you age or do you mean AR gene transcription increases somehow?
Nobody knows. According to the faulty hair follicles theory, blocking DHT 100% should work to restore lost hair. It doesn't, though. And it might not even matter that we don't know why.
But this isnt completely true. Blocking just 70% of DHT with finasteride sometimes reverses hairloss in men.It absolutely is quantifiable, so if people are claiming DHT sensitivity increases with age there would be literature to back the claim. The theory of androgens is pretty solid they cause miniaturisation and we know that because blocking them halts the progression.
This, it's not the cause, it goes much deeper than the simplified "DHT" theory.
dht is just a part in the chain and not the root cause, which is something else, but blaming dht sells finasteride so the entire industry is happy with that
The theory of androgens is pretty solid they cause miniaturisation and we know that because blocking them halts the progression.
So If someone starts receding with say 17 or 18 is that like a 100 % guaranty for ending up with norwood 7 sooner or later ?
Not necessarily true. It depends which areas follicle express these genes more.
Halts but doesn't cure baldness. Even castration won't cause full regrowth. The faulty hair follicles theory is lacking.