I don't know much of anything regarding genetics, so this is an uneducated question at best, I must warn you.
Today I was pondering as to why certain people will lose hair before others, vice versa and those who won't lose any hair at all.
Do our genetics have the ability to simply say at 'X period of time begin hair loss phase' (much like turning a light switch on or off)?
I only assumed that we inherited the hair loss gene and that we as beings needed to induce the hair loss by meeting certain conditions (variables within our body) for hair loss to proliferate itself.
If hair loss is just one of those things that can turn itself on as instructed by our genetic makeup then surely the only thing we can do is turn it off, not slow it down.
But since people do show results with medications it would suggest to me that hair loss is merely an imbalance in which all of us men are succeptable to (to some degree) but in which only exists and appears in those men in which certain variables are met.
If that makes any sense at all....
Today I was pondering as to why certain people will lose hair before others, vice versa and those who won't lose any hair at all.
Do our genetics have the ability to simply say at 'X period of time begin hair loss phase' (much like turning a light switch on or off)?
I only assumed that we inherited the hair loss gene and that we as beings needed to induce the hair loss by meeting certain conditions (variables within our body) for hair loss to proliferate itself.
If hair loss is just one of those things that can turn itself on as instructed by our genetic makeup then surely the only thing we can do is turn it off, not slow it down.
But since people do show results with medications it would suggest to me that hair loss is merely an imbalance in which all of us men are succeptable to (to some degree) but in which only exists and appears in those men in which certain variables are met.
If that makes any sense at all....
