- Reaction score
- 4
No rudimentary level please.
Can someone please tell me if my logic here is correct:
- If upregulation causes the effect of a hormone on a tissue/receptor to decrease, is this one of the possible reasons that finasteride could cause long-term ED in people, despite DHT levels returning to normal?
- If this is indeed the case, then why doesn't the same thing occur in hair follicles? That is to say, why does DHT still have a negative affect on hair follicles if the tissue has already experienced upregulation?
My question is coming from someone with limited knowledge of hormones, so if it is obvious please explain to me.
Edit: I realised that what I was describing is actually downregulation, not upregulation.
Can someone please tell me if my logic here is correct:
- If upregulation causes the effect of a hormone on a tissue/receptor to decrease, is this one of the possible reasons that finasteride could cause long-term ED in people, despite DHT levels returning to normal?
- If this is indeed the case, then why doesn't the same thing occur in hair follicles? That is to say, why does DHT still have a negative affect on hair follicles if the tissue has already experienced upregulation?
My question is coming from someone with limited knowledge of hormones, so if it is obvious please explain to me.
Edit: I realised that what I was describing is actually downregulation, not upregulation.
Last edited: