OK if you accept the notion that hairloss is caused by our biological disposition of not being resistant to DHT a bi-product of Testosterone, then it would stand to reason that during our sexual peak or prime at ages 18-25 that we would start to develop hair loss then, as this is when we are producing the most amount of testosterone hence our sex drives being through the roof at this time therefore creating high levels of DHT which our poor scalps hate so much.
Why is it then that many men do not develop hair loss untill well into their 30s, 40s, and 50s when testosterone levels surely would lower and diminished as those compared to when they were in their teens and early 20s??
Just some food for thought.
Why is it then that many men do not develop hair loss untill well into their 30s, 40s, and 50s when testosterone levels surely would lower and diminished as those compared to when they were in their teens and early 20s??
Just some food for thought.
