Why Does Propecia And Rogaine Work For Some But Not For Others?

dralex

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So as the title says why does propecia and rogaine work for some people and not for others? I always hear that "Your hair loss is too aggressive." I don't agree that is it at all though. There are some people with much more aggressive hair loss than me that are able to recover almost all their hair with just using rogaine. Personally I don't think rogaine is doing anything for me, and propecia may be slightly slowing down my hair loss but seems to be doing little to nothing. Is there any studies on what makes these drugs effective for some but not others? Curious what everyone's thoughts are on this.
 

lickawrist

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idk, there could be a lot of factors. some people lack the sulfurtransferase enzyme, so they dont respond well or at all to minoxidil. it also depends on how long they've been losing hair. generally, you have a better chance of saving more hair the sooner you start treatment. but i guess it really comes down to androgen sensitivity. id imagine someone who was more sensitive to androgens would respond better on an androgen inhibitor.
 

pegasus2

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I would think it's the opposite. The more sensitive you are to androgens, the less you would respond to an AA since even a small amount of DHT would be enough to make your hair fall out. If you are less sensitive to androgens then reducing DHT by 70 percent could get it low enough that your follicles won't be damaged by the lesser amount.
 

lickawrist

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I would think it's the opposite. The more sensitive you are to androgens, the less you would respond to an AA since even a small amount of DHT would be enough to make your hair fall out. If you are less sensitive to androgens then reducing DHT by 70 percent could get it low enough that your follicles won't be damaged by the lesser amount.
in a general sense yes. but say, a person with hypersensitivity to dht also has more affected follicles than the average male pattern baldness sufferer. he will lose more hair, but he will also regrow more hair on an androgen inhibitor than a person with moderate loss because the miniaturizing effects will be repressed further than it would w/o an AA. that may explain why some people, who experience much more aggressive hair loss like vertex loss, is able to regrow a lot more hair than a person who just experiences hairline thinning.
 

pegasus2

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The vertex area is less sensitive to androgens than the hairline, so that would be another argument for the reverse. The vertex area is just easier to regrow because it's usually diffuse loss whereas the hairline is slick bald. For some reason having neighboring hairs makes regrowth easier.
 
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