I see this a lot on the internet. That some people will just not benefit from finasteride. Or that some people lost more hair at the same/faster rate than before they took finasteride. I don't understand this.
I can understand how the extent of hair growth may vary between different people.
I can understand how the length of time to see results may vary between different people.
But how can it just not work in some people? Finasteride reduces DHT in EVERYONE by the same amount. The only reasons I can think of:
1) all their hair follicles have already atrophied, i.e. that person is slick bald and has been for some time.
2) their hair loss is not caused by DHT, i.e. it is not "male pattern baldness"
Can anyone shed some light?
Thanks
I can understand how the extent of hair growth may vary between different people.
I can understand how the length of time to see results may vary between different people.
But how can it just not work in some people? Finasteride reduces DHT in EVERYONE by the same amount. The only reasons I can think of:
1) all their hair follicles have already atrophied, i.e. that person is slick bald and has been for some time.
2) their hair loss is not caused by DHT, i.e. it is not "male pattern baldness"
Can anyone shed some light?
Thanks
