Why Do Some Peoples Hair Loss Stop Progressing At Some Point?

[buckthorn]

Can't it simply be that T and DHT drop with age, and estrogen increases?

nice response, yeah this could definitely be a big variable I think... but, enough to the point where it would keep these hairs fully terminal? I mean, he's had these hairs for the last 15 years and when he gets blood tests, his testosterone is still in the normal range.

 

[Afro_Vacancy]

nice response, yeah this could definitely be a big variable I think... but, enough to the point where it would keep these hairs fully terminal? I mean, he's had these hairs for the last 15 years and when he gets blood tests, his testosterone is still in the normal range.

Serum testosterone levels are irrelevant, balding and non-balding men have the same androgen levels on average. What changes for each person is the sensitivity (unknown mechanism), and it may be that in his case he fell below the threshold past a certain age.

 

[cyrusthegreat@hotmail.com]

In my opinion this is due to the fact that the body must undergo many more hormonal phases than we have already catalogued.

We know puberty, pregnancy and menopause / andropause and that is pretty much it.

Even the "middle age crisis" is sneered at as if it is impossible it comes from a complex change in how the body reacts to hormones.

I have undergone many of these inconsistent "hairloss moments". For five years everything seems cool and dandy. Then one year you see that you lost 50% of your remaining hair in 12 months. What really happened? Hormonal level seemed to be the same. You are using the same medicines and you have the same life style.

Simply, the body changes how it reacts to the same stimuli, and we know so little about it.

That's pretty insightful, but what of the variability of the androgen receptor over time? Is variable AR sensitivity even a thing? I don't think I've seen any papers on the matter. Sigh, so much is unknown.

 

[buckthorn]

Serum testosterone levels are irrelevant, balding and non-balding men have the same androgen levels on average. What changes for each person is the sensitivity (unknown mechanism), and it may be that in his case he fell below the threshold past a certain age.

so, you're telling me to chop my balls off? right? just give me the go ahead already David.

Your post is right on imo... so do you think this is the same reason people will experience a receding hair line until a certain age and then the hair loss will just stop dead in it's tracks? must be along these lines..

 

[Afro_Vacancy]

so, you're telling me to chop my balls off? right? just give me the go ahead already David.

Your post is right on imo... so do you think this is the same reason people will experience a receding hair line until a certain age and then the hair loss will just stop dead in it's tracks? must be along these lines..

I don't know honestly but that's a good possibility. Another one is their spatial distribution of androgen receptors.

An interesting thread here:
https://www.hairlosstalk.com/intera...ss-need-your-opinion-about-this-study.100968/

 

[Roberto_72]

That's pretty insightful, but what of the variability of the androgen receptor over time? Is variable AR sensitivity even a thing? I don't think I've seen any papers on the matter. Sigh, so much is unknown.

I really don't know if AR sensitivity variability is a thing: the problem with measuring it would be that you would need to keep people under constant scrutiny for decades to understand if it even exists.

However, having lost hair for 35 years now I can testify that
1 - either there is a variability of the "threshold" above which AR forces the follicle to lose the hair
2 - or AR levels are much more variable in a human body than we would think.

Think about the banana plant. It can take one single night freeze to kill the plant. I have a feeling that hair follicles for some people are a bit like that: for a month, you have more DHT in your body and you don't know, because you don't measure it regularly, and your follicles can't stand it and six months later you wonder what happened to your poor hair.

Of course this is just speculation based on the fact I have always had the same habits and my hair loss has been so erratic instead.

 

[SmoothSailing]

We know that it happens in a certain pattern because certain hairs are more sensitive to AR than others. So it seems to me that it's likely the reason this happens is because their hair there is less sensitive by a larger degree than those who continue balding. Too little is known to say for sure though.

 

[Nadia1972]

My theory on this is that some people simply have hair on top that is not sensitive to androgens. It really is the only possible explanation.

My Father is a very diffused thinner. He still has maybe a thousand hairs on the top of his head that REFUSE to die off. He is almost 70, and these hairs will fall out, but will regrow with as much vigor as the one's on the side and back.

It's a very good question btw, an extremely important one that I haven't really seen addressed on here.

I would love to hear @Swoop opinion on this. This could have some applications in the pipeline research.

it depends on the Androgenetic Alopecia.We are not all equal with the hormones.In my family the Androgenetic Alopecia affects the full head

 

[Sokubo]

No kidding. This is a weird example, but I was always struck by how obvious this was in George H.W. Bush, and it's highly unlikely that he did anything to manage his hair loss.

^^
40 years difference in between those photos.