Why do I have to use 1ml of Minoxidil?

wombat

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It says on the pamphlet to use 1ml no matter how big the balding site is. Is this nonsense to make you use more than you need to?

Surely applying 1ml to a small section is different to applying 1ml to huge bald spot?

Why should I apply 1ml even though my bald spots (receeding hairline) is completely covered with 1/2 a ml?
 

flux

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First off, welcome to the site, Wombat. I read your other post and its quite refreshing to have someone trying things out who isnt in a panic. The fact that you could take it or leave it puts you in an envyable position for most of us.

You dont need to use the full 1ml. Just cover the affected area, thats all thats important. However, looking at your pics, its appears that you're not only receeding, youre diffusing as well. Your vertex is thin so you could benifit from applying minoxidil to the entire top of your scalp. Really this area is much more prone to recovery then the bald areas, as you still have follicles there producing hair (just thinner hair). Because your hair is so short, you may find that you are able to do this with under 1ml anyways.

With the big three, your odds are good for some regrowth.
 

Yardbird

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Flux made some great points, and just to highlight some things Bryan has mentioned before, one reason you would want to use 1 ml of minoxidil is that you want to make sure enough medication is absorbing itself into your scalp. For example, you could nearly duplicate the effect of 5% minoxidil by using a little more than double the amount of 2% minoxidil in your dosages.
So its stands to reason that you need be sure to use enough 5% to maximize your effects. Not to contradict Flux, but if were my hair, I'd stick with a full 1 ml.
 
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