- Reaction score
- 42
For many years now, I've been telling people that there's no real difference between the 2% and 5% versions of topical Rogaine, and that all you have to do is simply use a larger quantity of the 2% version to get the same results as what you get with the 5% version. Now I'm going to explain to you why that is! I present to you the following study: "Relationship between Contact Time of Applied Dose and Percutaneous Absorption of Minoxidil from a Topical Solution", James J. Ferry, Judy H. Shepard, and Gregory J. Szpunar. Journal of Pharmaceutical Sciences, Vol. 79, No. 6, June 1990. This study was done under the auspices of The Upjohn Company.
This is a highly detailed and complex study examining the rate at which minoxidil is absorbed systemically after being applied topically, but that's not really what I'm talking about here. In the first paragraph of the Discussion section near the end, the authors made a very important and insightful statement. Here it is in full (added emphasis in bold is my own), and keep in mind that they are referring to the old 2% version of Rogaine, which was all they had at the time this was written:
AHA!! See what I'm getting at? So what happens when you apply a 2% minoxidil solution to your scalp? Answer: the alcohol and water rapidly evaporate, leaving behind A SATURATED SOLUTION OF MINOXIDIL IN PROYLENE GLYCOL. And that's the same thing that happens when you apply 5% solution of topical minoxidil! The only difference between the two is that the 5% version leaves behind a larger quantity of that saturated propylene glycol solution. You could make up the difference simply by using MORE of the 2% solution (about 2 1/2 times as much). But the point here is that there's nothing magical about a 5% solution, because it turns into the same thing that a 2% solution turns into. There's just a little more of it, assuming you apply the same physical quantity (1 milliliter). But adjusting the amount you physically apply makes them exactly the same. Capiche?
This is a highly detailed and complex study examining the rate at which minoxidil is absorbed systemically after being applied topically, but that's not really what I'm talking about here. In the first paragraph of the Discussion section near the end, the authors made a very important and insightful statement. Here it is in full (added emphasis in bold is my own), and keep in mind that they are referring to the old 2% version of Rogaine, which was all they had at the time this was written:
The topical solution used in this study consists of a mixture of ethanol : water : propylene glycol in relative proportion (v/v) of 60:20:20. Ethanol and water are extremely volatile relative to propylene glycol and application of this vehicle to the scalp likely results quickly in a solution of minoxidil in propylene glycol approximately equivalent to the solubility maximum of 100 mg/mL. Percutaneous absorption of minoxidil after topical administration presumably occurs by diffusion out of this saturated propylene glycol solution.
AHA!! See what I'm getting at? So what happens when you apply a 2% minoxidil solution to your scalp? Answer: the alcohol and water rapidly evaporate, leaving behind A SATURATED SOLUTION OF MINOXIDIL IN PROYLENE GLYCOL. And that's the same thing that happens when you apply 5% solution of topical minoxidil! The only difference between the two is that the 5% version leaves behind a larger quantity of that saturated propylene glycol solution. You could make up the difference simply by using MORE of the 2% solution (about 2 1/2 times as much). But the point here is that there's nothing magical about a 5% solution, because it turns into the same thing that a 2% solution turns into. There's just a little more of it, assuming you apply the same physical quantity (1 milliliter). But adjusting the amount you physically apply makes them exactly the same. Capiche?