It is often stated in the literature that about 25-30% of men will have noticeable hair loss by age 30, which increases to 40% by age 35, and to two-thirds of men by age 60.
I have also read that half of men have noticeable hair loss by age 40, which would tie in with the above statistics.
I'm assuming that these statistics are referring to NW3s and above, and that they are based upon Caucasian incidence of male pattern baldness. These statistics seem a little higher than what I have observed myself living in Wales. The majority of men under age 40 seem to be either NW1 or NW2. NW3 and above seems fairly rare among men under 30. If these stats are actually referring to anything that's NW2 or higher as "noticeable hair loss", then it seems lower than what I've observed myself.
In your opinions, is it really true that at least one in four Caucasian men aged 30 will be NW3 or above (presumably what is meant by "noticeable hair loss"), and that by age 35, two in five (40%) will be NW3 or above?
I have also read that half of men have noticeable hair loss by age 40, which would tie in with the above statistics.
I'm assuming that these statistics are referring to NW3s and above, and that they are based upon Caucasian incidence of male pattern baldness. These statistics seem a little higher than what I have observed myself living in Wales. The majority of men under age 40 seem to be either NW1 or NW2. NW3 and above seems fairly rare among men under 30. If these stats are actually referring to anything that's NW2 or higher as "noticeable hair loss", then it seems lower than what I've observed myself.
In your opinions, is it really true that at least one in four Caucasian men aged 30 will be NW3 or above (presumably what is meant by "noticeable hair loss"), and that by age 35, two in five (40%) will be NW3 or above?
