This is a question for someone like bryan. First though let me start with a story. A guy at my work is 30 years old and he has a teenage hairline. No widows peak but literally every hair on his head maybe like brad pitt or whoever you want to imagine. He has no facial hair at all.
Now on to my question. If androgens are responsible for male sexual characteristics then if male pattern baldness is caused by androgens and so is the developement of facial hair then both must be affected to some degree by finasteride right? so facial hair should be decreased or stop altogether if you finasteride in theory?
Now on to my question. If androgens are responsible for male sexual characteristics then if male pattern baldness is caused by androgens and so is the developement of facial hair then both must be affected to some degree by finasteride right? so facial hair should be decreased or stop altogether if you finasteride in theory?
