Retrograde Alopecia VS Traction Alopecia

daredevil14

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Ok I know that these 2 topics aren't discussed here that much and before I write any further, I do suffer from the traditional male pattern baldness at the temples (~NW2).

How can one know the difference between retrograde alopecia (which is still largely ambiguous) and traction alopecia? Both can show the exact symptoms: thin hair on the sides, behind the ears and on the neckline. I have very long hair (almost waist-length) and mostly wear it in a ponytail (I am saying years of ponytails). Could my thin sides/behind the ears be caused by traction alopecia? Or most probably the loss is still androgenic and caused by retrograde alopecia?

For the records, I am almost 26 years old, 've been on finasteride for 6 months now and on minoxidil for almost 2 months and a half. Other than my bald temples and my thin sides/behind the ears/neckline, my hair elsewhere is still thick so it may be considered a success due to treatment or simply Androgenetic Alopecia not striking anymore. I have started to notice small vellus hair (most probably thanks to minoxidil) on my bare temples so I am crossing my fingers and looking forward for the 4-months mark.
 

oye_rg

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Are my threads really hard to participate in? :/

No idea but maybe you can look at the pattern of thinning. male pattern baldness has a pattern thinning the temples and crown for most people. Behind the ears/neckline is eternal hair territory even for extreme cases of male pattern baldness.

The traction (pull) I suppose occurs all over, more at the perimeter. You could have both. Best is to judge where your hair gets pulled the most and see if the thinning matches up to that. If you post pictures you will definitely get better responses.
 
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