- Reaction score
- 43
Armando Jose said:… This "local" androgen activity (testosterone and DHT levels at the level of the follicle itself) has not been directly or acccurately measured.
Uh, yes it has! Try this on for size: "Regulation of Human Hair Growth by Steroid Hormones. I. Testosterone Metabolism in Isolated Hairs", Schweikert and Wilson, J Clin Endocrinol Metab 38: 811, 1974. Immediately following that study is another similar one by the same authors: "Regulation of Human Hair Growth by Steroid Hormones. II. Androstenedione Metabolism in Isolated Hairs".
They did find a higher level of 5a-reductase activity and higher levels of DHT in the hair follicles of balding men, compared to those of non-balding men. I don't want to type-out the entire abstracts of those studies, but here's a single sentence from the abstract of the first one: "In general a higher formation of 5a-reduced metabolites and 17-ketosteroid metabolites was observed at all sites of the scalp of bald men as compared to hair obtained from the corresponding sites of women and nonbalding men, and a significantly higher rate of metabolism was found at the frontal area of the bald men..."
Armando Jose said:I also failled looking for a unequivocal experiment in order to determinate the amount of androgens in scalp in prepubertal. Then, how is possible bet a “fortune†in the current theory??
As you can see even by these early studies from 1974, the standard, accepted theory of hairloss is OVERWHELMINGLY supported by all the available evidence.
Armando Jose said:Acording to my own theory androgens must exist in scalp hairs before puberty. If I am wrong please, anyone could enligthen me?
Armando, I have REPEATEDLY tried to enlighten you! :wink: I've pointed out to you OVER AND OVER AND OVER that scalp hair thrives and flourishes in the TOTAL ABSENCE of any androgens! Why do I have to keep repeating myself?? :lol: :lol: :lol:
Bryan
