I know this has been discussed as nearly everything really has at one time or another. The basic theory is androgens cause a complex sequence of events to lead to hair miniaturizing. It also goes that androgens supposedly cause increased body hair/facial hair developement of secondary sexual characteristics and that type of thing. If as men age our androgen levels decline naturally in general, why does hairloss increase and body hair increase? That doesnt make any sense and seems to kind of contradict the androgen theory. If you would argue sensitivity to the remaining androgens increases or receptor sites change somehow then what causes that to happen?
question on aging and androgens
- Thread starter abcdefg
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abcdefg said:
The damage to hair follicles from androgens is probably cumulative, and happens over a period of time (as in years). Also, the sensitivity to androgens increases over a period of time, too. It doesn't just suddenly appear overnight.
abcdefg said:
Nobody knows the reason for that yet.
One more question. If androgens levels drop as we age and body hair is supposedly fueled by androgens then why do men generally get more hair as they get older if androgens decline? That seems to be contradictory also. I had an unusually low amount of facial and body hair in high school and had no hairloss and ive gradually been slowly getting more body hair and my head hair seems to be thinning slowly as well. Im not even a Norwood 2 but it does seem like for me atleast they do match up unless its just a coincidence.
