http://findarticles.com/p/articles/mi_m ... _n12417026
This article says this first sentance second paragraph:
In terms of male pattern baldness, testosterone does not act directly on hair.
Now is that a lie or something? I thought testosterone was proven to change scalp hair growth?
Then it goes on to say this:
Even in men, normal activity of 5 alpha-reductase is diminished with age, and it is anticipated that the drug will diminish in efficacy in males over 60 years of age. Occipital hairs have high aromatase enzyme circulating around hairs, and are thereby resistant to developing androgenetic alopecia.
So at 60 dht levels lower by themselves anyways? Are they also saying that high aromatase then is why some hair can resist dht?
This article says this first sentance second paragraph:
In terms of male pattern baldness, testosterone does not act directly on hair.
Now is that a lie or something? I thought testosterone was proven to change scalp hair growth?
Then it goes on to say this:
Even in men, normal activity of 5 alpha-reductase is diminished with age, and it is anticipated that the drug will diminish in efficacy in males over 60 years of age. Occipital hairs have high aromatase enzyme circulating around hairs, and are thereby resistant to developing androgenetic alopecia.
So at 60 dht levels lower by themselves anyways? Are they also saying that high aromatase then is why some hair can resist dht?