Hi all,
not wanting to beat the dead horse or anything
but the whole "pattern of hair loss is due to frontal areas going first because the derma contains a higher number of androgen receptors" hasn't actually been scientifically proven anywhere I can find?
this is the only study I can find however it lists balding scalp and 0.05 +/- 0.01 and non-balding 0.04 +/- 0.001 for number of androgen receptors
Everyone knows that your errors are constant for the same scientific method
so they obviously botched the results to give them the answer they were looking for???
not wanting to beat the dead horse or anything
but the whole "pattern of hair loss is due to frontal areas going first because the derma contains a higher number of androgen receptors" hasn't actually been scientifically proven anywhere I can find?
Balding hair follicle dermal papilla cells contain higher levels of androgen receptors than those from non-balding scalp - PubMed
Androgens can gradually transform large scalp hair follicles to smaller vellus ones, causing balding. The mechanisms involved are unclear, although androgens are believed to act on the epithelial hair follicle via the mesenchyme-derived dermal papilla. This study investigates whether the levels...
pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov
this is the only study I can find however it lists balding scalp and 0.05 +/- 0.01 and non-balding 0.04 +/- 0.001 for number of androgen receptors
Everyone knows that your errors are constant for the same scientific method
so they obviously botched the results to give them the answer they were looking for???