Number of androgen receptors in balding scalp vs non-balding

wishkid

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Hi all,

not wanting to beat the dead horse or anything

but the whole "pattern of hair loss is due to frontal areas going first because the derma contains a higher number of androgen receptors" hasn't actually been scientifically proven anywhere I can find?


this is the only study I can find however it lists balding scalp and 0.05 +/- 0.01 and non-balding 0.04 +/- 0.001 for number of androgen receptors

Everyone knows that your errors are constant for the same scientific method

so they obviously botched the results to give them the answer they were looking for???
 
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