idontwanttobebalding said:
Are you discounting the abstract as it relates to this thread or for it's merit?
I'm mostly discounting it as it relates to this thread.
idontwanttobebalding said:
freakout compared the castrate to females......that seems logical to me. Testosterone is not just a male hormone....we just have more. Just like males have estrogen. Castration in males almost eliminates T (not completely). A women who is androgen insensitive is pretty darn close to a castrated male to me. You are correct that it is obviously not "androgenetic alopecia" since even if there are androgens present this female is insensitive to them....yet she is losing her hair. Not only is she losing her hair, but she is losing it in a pattern.
How do you know? Have you read the full study, not just the abstract?
idontwanttobebalding said:
A pattern associated with FPB.
I believe FPB is pretty diffuse. Certainly more so than male pattern baldness. There may not even _be_ a "pattern" associated with it.
idontwanttobebalding said:
How many times have I seen on this forum that if you are losing hair in the pattern that it is Androgenetic Alopecia? Let's just say, lots. What if you had no idea about her androgen insensitivity? What if this was just a poster....showing her pics. asking what was happening and what she can do? What would your reply be? My guess would be out of hand you would say "well that's Androgenetic Alopecia"...."no doubt about it"
I wouldn't be that emphatic about it. I'd say it's
probably Androgenetic Alopecia, although I've read medical journal articles in the past (even before seeing the study above) that female hair loss seems to also involve other factors. I've never paid much attention to it, though; male male pattern baldness is my main interest.
idontwanttobebalding said:
And your example is false because you are introducing a variable that does not relate to the situation. Chemo. will make anyones hair fall out...
Uh...
OF COURSE it will make anyone's hair fall out!! That's exactly the point I was making to you!! It's irrelevant even to mention that, just like it's irrelevant to mention the case history of that person with CAIS in the British Medical Journal. Neither one of them has anything to do with
androgenetic alopecia!
idontwanttobebalding said:
...but androgen insenstivity.....well that is supposed to be the holy grail......that is a ticket to NW1. Right?
From
androgenetic alopecia, sure. It won't necessarily stop balding from some other condition, obviously.
idontwanttobebalding said:
I think there is Androgenetic Alopecia. But I don't think it explains all of hairloss in the so called male pattern baldness region like you apparently do.
When I discuss "hairloss", I'm almost always referring to
androgenetic alopecia.