It is my understanding that the only conditions known to cause the miniaturisation of hair follicles is Androgenetic Alopecia.
"So you can see that if a person identifies short hairs it does not mean they have Androgenetic Alopecia. However, the likelihood they have Androgenetic Alopecia increases significantly if they shed alot of these short 3 cm hairs"- (
https://donovanmedical.com/hair-blog/2015/11/22/shedding-short-hairs#sthash.kDBkxMK2.dpuf)
I also found this in a study report: "Of the 100 patients, 18 with 10% or more of hairs that were 3 cm or shorter and who shed fewer than 100 hairs were diagnosed as having Androgenetic Alopecia" - (
https://jamanetwork.com/journals/jamadermatology/fullarticle/399861),
And also: "The most widely accepted histological parameter for differentiating the two diseases is the number of terminal hairs compared to the number of vellus hairs. The ratio T:V < 4:1 is characteristic of androgenetic alopecia (ratio = or < 3:1 is considered conclusive) and the ratio T:V > 7:1 is indicative of chronic telogen effluvium.25,26,35-37" - (
http://www.scielo.br/scielo.php?script=sci_arttext&pid=S0365-05962012000500012)
If I understood that correctly, people with Chronic telogen effluvium can have a T:V Ratio of 7:1, meaning that there still is some miniaturization present, even tho telogen effluvium does not contribute to miniaturization which leads me to believe that this is also true for normal scalps.
And also: "Having 10 to 20% miniaturized hair could be normal and not part of the balding process."
"If we see over 20 percent hair miniaturization in a general area, it is common indication of active hair loss in the area." -(
https://parsamohebi.com/scalp-hair-miniaturization/)
Now, I'm not a Doctor or anything like that but in my understanding, having some miniaturized hair seems normal.
But idk maybe I'm wrong and I misinterpreted everything
