chewbaca said:
wangho75 said:
I get what you're trying to ask chewbaca and it makes perfect sense than in some individuals DHT is amplified for some reson regardless of male pattern baldness. That's interesting, but it almost seems 1 in the same. I'll throw this at you though, the only people in my family to go bald is my father and my mother's brother. My 2 grandfathers had great thick heads of hair into their 80's and my dad's 2 brothers are maybe better than a Norwood 1. Other male cousins have full heads of hair. Slick bald or Norwood 6,7 I haven't seen in the family, just severe diffusion in my dad and uncle's case. The kicker is that im an excellent responder so far at 3 mos and I see a potential 300% improvement .
.....Which is what i trying to say. Those good responders seem to be the ones having minimal male pattern baldness history in their family tree. Personally i know of some people who had a strong genetic history in their family who never reponded to propecia. And also i know of people who had been bald for 10 yeas and took propecia to have their all hair return. S i guess for this people their hair follicles are not dead and nort pre-destined to be dead just their growth being stumped by excess DHT.
So i think male pattern baldness should be the term to be used for those who are destined to go bald.
What has been the blueprint for male pattern baldness for the last few decades though? I know a new study has revealed an excess of one gene which causes male pattern baldness has been revealed, but who is to say if that study is correct? Who is to say the few studies and revelations before that are correct, either? Maybe finasteride is not for male pattern baldness, but for an excess of DHT in the scalp.
There is something going on between the non-responders and responders, but no one knows for sure, which is frustrating. I like your outside of the box thinking on this, though, and I think there may be some truth to what you say.