Hi
I've done a lot of searching trying to find the answer of what i would have thought is a relatively simple question.
The question:
If for example i were to take finasteride for say 5 years and then quit for whatever reason,
Am i correct to say that by the start of year 6 (one year after quitting):
a) I would have lost the new hair gained
b) I would have lost some of the hair that i had on day 1 because finasteride inhibits the attack on the follicles but doesnt stop the attack completely.
c) but net net I would have more hair then if i had never taken finasteride.
Would be good if somebody could shed some light be it via official studies or anecdotal experience/evidence.
Thanks
I've done a lot of searching trying to find the answer of what i would have thought is a relatively simple question.
The question:
If for example i were to take finasteride for say 5 years and then quit for whatever reason,
Am i correct to say that by the start of year 6 (one year after quitting):
a) I would have lost the new hair gained
b) I would have lost some of the hair that i had on day 1 because finasteride inhibits the attack on the follicles but doesnt stop the attack completely.
c) but net net I would have more hair then if i had never taken finasteride.
Would be good if somebody could shed some light be it via official studies or anecdotal experience/evidence.
Thanks