If say I hit norwood 2, does that necessarily mean that I'm going to go to norwood 3? My dad had recession when he was really young but didn't lose all his hair until he was like 45. What determines the speed? Just the receptiveness of your hair follicles? I guess it would make sense if that was the case, considering its called male PATTERN baldness, but im just wondering.
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If you hit a certain norwood number does that ALWAYS mean further loss of hair?
- Thread starter thiswomps
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All I can say is that I watched some celebrities, who were losing hair. Some of them were NW2/NW3 in their fourties, but remained virtually stable for decades. Others were hit by it like by a thunderbolt and got bald quickly. So there may be big individual differences.
HairGuru22
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It depends on your hairline! If you are a Norwood 2 but the hairline shows no recession then you are safe. Most people think that if you are Norwood 2 you are automatically ****ed but thats not true. However, if you show some hairline recession then most likely you will end up bald. Especially if you start to recede in your 20's
It depends on your hairline! If you are a Norwood 2 but the hairline shows no recession then you are safe. Most people think that if you are Norwood 2 you are automatically ****ed but thats not true. However, if you show some hairline recession then most likely you will end up bald. Especially if you start to recede in your 20's
isn't a norwood 2 already a hairline recession though? i have a norwood 2 barely, but its not noticeable at all really..
SuprisedGuy
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isn't a norwood 2 already a hairline recession though? i have a norwood 2 barely, but its not noticeable at all really..
Some people without male pattern baldness have high hairlines so they would be considered an NW2. However if you're an NW1 at 20 then NW2 at 30 then you probably have male pattern baldness and it's just mild.
I see. my hairline definitely changed from when i was young, at 19 i saw it raise a little but has barely moved for 2 years. probably just have slow male pattern baldness. It seems like the majority of men get recession though, and some people die with a barely recessed hairline, albeit still recession - would it still be called male pattern baldness if it doesn't complete the pattern...? food for though i guess
SuprisedGuy
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To answer your original question, yes your hair follicles have any sensitivity to DHT would result in hair loss over time and the speed and severity is genetically determined. From observation, men without male pattern baldness don't have any temple recession whatsoever after say their teen years. Look at guys in their 60's without male pattern baldness, Richard Gere and David Lynch for example both have a full head hair and the same hairline they had thirty years ago. However I believe that even in men that don't bald they still experience age-related thinning but again, it will vary just as some people get wrinkles earlier than others. Which is why Lynch's hair is slightly thicker than Gere's despite being older.
If you recede to say NW3 at forty and stay their until old age, you still have male pattern baldness even if you don't end up an nw6. The norwood chart isn't about the progression of balding but rather where the hair loss stops for men. A good example of someone with relatively minor male pattern baldness is Daniel Day-Lewis, he's been an NW3 for close to twenty years.
If you recede to say NW3 at forty and stay their until old age, you still have male pattern baldness even if you don't end up an nw6. The norwood chart isn't about the progression of balding but rather where the hair loss stops for men. A good example of someone with relatively minor male pattern baldness is Daniel Day-Lewis, he's been an NW3 for close to twenty years.