I understand this has probably been asked to death but the information is so confusing and conflicting that I am completely lost. I've seem graphs which show that 1mg is no better than 0.25mg, but then others which show anything less than 1mg will be pointless
Anyway, what I think I have found from the internet minefield is:
- Taking 0.5mg of finasteride is around 60% - 80% as effective as taking 1mg in blocking the formation of DHT (serum DHT? I can't pretend I know the difference) but approximately equal to blocking the DHT which reaches the hair follicles (I didn't know it was able to differentiate between where the DHT is distributed, perhaps it's distributed to the specific internal organs which require it and any "left over" is shipped to the hair follicles?)
- Because of the above side effects are reduced because there's still DHT circulating in the body, which counteracts the effects of estradol since less testosterone is converted to it and DHT is important for the prostate (which in turn is important for penis function, especially sexual function)
- Even taking 0.02mg is effective if taken on a daily basis, and some studies show it's just as powerful as 1mg
- You can take finasteride every 2 or 3 days instead of daily because although it will be out of the body within a day it takes a lot longer than this time to reproduce the appropriate androgens, so popping finasteride after 2 days will "flat line" it again and it won't have time to attack the hair follicles.
- DHT is important for the development of neurosteroids, so too much suppression is likely the cause of sexual (and other) side effects; therefore reduce the intake, stop suppressing so much conversion to DHT, and stop/reduce side effects?
Is any of that remotely correct? My terminology will be shoddy but I hope it makes sense.
Also, I am relatively thin (10 stone, 140lbs, 64kg) so why would I need as much as a larger man who is, say, 14 stone/196lbs? Surely because I am smaller I will produce less of... most things?
The reason I ask is because I have started limiting Propecia to half a tablet (0.5mg) because of a side effect I am having (penis sensitivity is really lacking), so I hope it won't affect my progress which, so far, is really positive (except for the side effect, which is eating me up at the moment - I love orgasms!)
- - - Updated - - -
I keep seeing the graph below posted around online. Is it real? Does anyone know the source? I could knock up a graph like this with no issues...
Anyway, what I think I have found from the internet minefield is:
- Taking 0.5mg of finasteride is around 60% - 80% as effective as taking 1mg in blocking the formation of DHT (serum DHT? I can't pretend I know the difference) but approximately equal to blocking the DHT which reaches the hair follicles (I didn't know it was able to differentiate between where the DHT is distributed, perhaps it's distributed to the specific internal organs which require it and any "left over" is shipped to the hair follicles?)
- Because of the above side effects are reduced because there's still DHT circulating in the body, which counteracts the effects of estradol since less testosterone is converted to it and DHT is important for the prostate (which in turn is important for penis function, especially sexual function)
- Even taking 0.02mg is effective if taken on a daily basis, and some studies show it's just as powerful as 1mg
- You can take finasteride every 2 or 3 days instead of daily because although it will be out of the body within a day it takes a lot longer than this time to reproduce the appropriate androgens, so popping finasteride after 2 days will "flat line" it again and it won't have time to attack the hair follicles.
- DHT is important for the development of neurosteroids, so too much suppression is likely the cause of sexual (and other) side effects; therefore reduce the intake, stop suppressing so much conversion to DHT, and stop/reduce side effects?
Is any of that remotely correct? My terminology will be shoddy but I hope it makes sense.
Also, I am relatively thin (10 stone, 140lbs, 64kg) so why would I need as much as a larger man who is, say, 14 stone/196lbs? Surely because I am smaller I will produce less of... most things?
The reason I ask is because I have started limiting Propecia to half a tablet (0.5mg) because of a side effect I am having (penis sensitivity is really lacking), so I hope it won't affect my progress which, so far, is really positive (except for the side effect, which is eating me up at the moment - I love orgasms!)
- - - Updated - - -
I keep seeing the graph below posted around online. Is it real? Does anyone know the source? I could knock up a graph like this with no issues...