has anyone done any research on what the difference is here? i mean, it seems to me like there could very well be completely different mechanisms that cause each of these types of balding. i personally think that the two should be official sub-categories of male pattern baldness and that there should be in depth studies (scalp condition, hormone levels, etc.) done on diffuse vs. non-diffuse thinners.
for instance, it seems to me like only (or mostly) us diffuse thinners get the annoying scalp pain (or trichodynia) or severe itching/discomfort.
also, it seems like a vast majority of the diffuse thinners have no strong family history of male pattern baldness.
these are just my observations... any thoughts?
for instance, it seems to me like only (or mostly) us diffuse thinners get the annoying scalp pain (or trichodynia) or severe itching/discomfort.
also, it seems like a vast majority of the diffuse thinners have no strong family history of male pattern baldness.
these are just my observations... any thoughts?