Diffuse thinning still androgenic?

[jd_uk]

i went to see a hair consultant yesterday and he said that I was a diffuse thinner but it was still androgenic caused by the DHT. What does this mean???

He said I had thinning at the crown and to be honest i'm not sure that I believe the extent of what he was saying as I have always had 'baby' hair (i.e. very fine) with a visible crown. What I have noticed thinning (and the reason I was there) are my temples - and I'm very unhappy with the recession there as I used to have thin hair all over but it was easy to style as the hairline was straight.

My partner tells me she can only notice a difference at the temples from years ago.

So anyway, what does it mean to supposedly be a diffuse thinner which is still caused by DHT?

Also, do you think that this guy could have been wrong in his 'diagnosis'? (He barely even looked at my hair and I think just noticed that mine was thin all over).

 

[TheGrayMan2001]

All male pattern baldness is caused by androgens (DHT).

 

[jd_uk]

yes, i know that but i thought diffuse thinning wasn't typical male pattern baldness?

 

[freakout]

Diffused thinning can be androgenic, thyroid or low iron (seldom in men). Recession at the temples cannot be prevented with Propecia or finasteride which suggests that it's not DHT related. More like stress because it's called a mature hairline. The problem is such a mature hairline can be huge in some cases. Are you having problems with your life lately?

 

[jd_uk]

Diffused thinning can be androgenic, thyroid or low iron (seldom in men). Recession at the temples cannot be prevented with Propecia or finasteride which suggests that it's not DHT related. More like stress because it's called a mature hairline. The problem is such a mature hairline can be huge in some cases. Are you having problems with your life lately?

Yes, I am - have anxiety and stress issues, but this guy was convinced that it was androgenic and said my worst thinning was at the crown and center. I've always had very thin 'baby' hair so I'm not sure id he saw it and thought of it as 'diffuse thinning'.

Surely temple recession can be androgenic though? Most guys who go bald have temple hair loss, no?

 

[freakout]

Upper temporal hairloss seems to be androgenic because only guys have them. But at the Propecia website, it says they no evidence that the treatment works at the uppder temples.

 

[jd_uk]

How exactly does stress cause balding or recession at the temples?

 

[TheGrayMan2001]

Stress does not cause permenant hair loss. It usually is spotchy, in clumps, and grows back, if it is caused by stress.

Temple thinning is always male pattern baldness. Diffuse thinning is usually male pattern baldness if th sides and back are staying thick.

 

[freakout]

How exactly does stress cause balding or recession at the temples?

There are not known studies on exactly how stress affects the upper temples. It's dffinitely male pattern baldness. The only question is if it's androgenic because Propecia has no effect onl it. Even non-bald men lose hair in the area.

You can either listen to them and watch it recede or you may want to try resolving your stress issues.

My regimen relates it to stress because it occurs during the time men are exposed to higher levels of responsibilities. There are ways to non-pharmacologically address stress issues and here;s the thing:

Stress affect men and women differently, physiologically.

 

[abcdefg]

A mature hair line is still caused by androgens. Women do not have mature hair lines at least most of the ones I see. Finasteride was only tested on the crown where it had the best results but it works everywhere since everywhere is affected by androgens if your susceptible.