http://www.regrowth.com/remedies/propecia-phase-iii-5-year-hair-loss-results/
in this 5 years study of propecia it said at the beginning that: "After 5 years, 65% of Propecia users saw no further hair loss while 35% showed some hair loss after five years" but than in the "Photographic assessments" section it said that :
"Photographic assessments show that the drop in hair count average drops are due more to the people who received the least benefit from Propecia in the first place. Basically, some of the people who did not see a change but maintained their hair through the first few years or who showed slight improvement started backsliding. Those who showed moderate or great improvement maintained their results. Here are the numbers.
No Propecia users had their hair counts decrease greatly compared to about 19% of placebo users. A small 3% of Propecia users showed a moderate decrease in hair compared to 31% of placebo users, and 7% of patients showed a slight decrease in hair compared to 25% of placebo users. Forty-two percent of Propecia users showed no change in their hair compared to 19% of placebo users, 22% showed a slight increase in hair compared to 6% of placebo users, 21% had a moderate increase in hair compared to no placebo users, and interestingly enough, 5% showed a great increase in hair (the same as in previous years). So apparently the better a responder you are, the more likely you are to maintain your results."
which means(according to the photographic assessments") that only 10% lost hair after 5 years and not 35%. what is going on here? the research contradicts itself or mybe the article itself just misinterpreted the research?. I found another article about this same research without any mentioning of the claims about the 65% and 35% http://www.hairlosshelp.com/html/Propecia5yrstudy.cfm ...
I know I mentioned it in a former thread but I think this question deserves a thread of its own. I also can't get this out of my mind...
in this 5 years study of propecia it said at the beginning that: "After 5 years, 65% of Propecia users saw no further hair loss while 35% showed some hair loss after five years" but than in the "Photographic assessments" section it said that :
"Photographic assessments show that the drop in hair count average drops are due more to the people who received the least benefit from Propecia in the first place. Basically, some of the people who did not see a change but maintained their hair through the first few years or who showed slight improvement started backsliding. Those who showed moderate or great improvement maintained their results. Here are the numbers.
No Propecia users had their hair counts decrease greatly compared to about 19% of placebo users. A small 3% of Propecia users showed a moderate decrease in hair compared to 31% of placebo users, and 7% of patients showed a slight decrease in hair compared to 25% of placebo users. Forty-two percent of Propecia users showed no change in their hair compared to 19% of placebo users, 22% showed a slight increase in hair compared to 6% of placebo users, 21% had a moderate increase in hair compared to no placebo users, and interestingly enough, 5% showed a great increase in hair (the same as in previous years). So apparently the better a responder you are, the more likely you are to maintain your results."
which means(according to the photographic assessments") that only 10% lost hair after 5 years and not 35%. what is going on here? the research contradicts itself or mybe the article itself just misinterpreted the research?. I found another article about this same research without any mentioning of the claims about the 65% and 35% http://www.hairlosshelp.com/html/Propecia5yrstudy.cfm ...
I know I mentioned it in a former thread but I think this question deserves a thread of its own. I also can't get this out of my mind...