Can some1 plz answer?

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Guest

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Can some1 plz tell me how diffuse hair loss mechanism is different from traditional male pattern baldness...NO FORUM NOR WEBSITE EXPLAINS it...and for some strange reason almost no1 ever relpies to my posts in these forums...Do you guys got a conspiracy against me?:D
 

powersam

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i wouldnt say there is a difference, your hair is just falling out in a different pattern. Sometimes it starts from the crown, sometimes the hairline, sometimes all over at once.

some people here seem to think that if you have diffuse loss then you have male pattern baldness but are also losing hair due to another factor. i do not discount this theory and would love research into this area, but at the moment there is no proof that this is the case.

ie/when people say that minoxidil is only good for receders and finasteride is only good for diffuse thinners, they are talking out of their arse.
 

hairhaircomeagain

Experienced Member
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The way DHT is f*****g up your hair is different in different cases. Depends on where more receptors are. If there are equal receptors everywhere you end up with diffuse thinning. Some start at the vertex and have intact hairlines...some go other ways..

I started with the hairline..temples....Now i have gone to almost diffuse..its crazy how this thing works
 
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Guest

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Guys but give me more info...id appreciate it...does diffuse thinning act like women's balding i.e. you dont ever go truly bald? It's really fucked cuz my dad is like NW3 with diffuse thinning @ the BACK of his head....my grandpa was like NW6 by my dad's age tho...my mom however has not many follicles i.e. bad density but they are THICK as f***...so I really don't know how my follicular fate will pan out. Guys, but back to the point, any other info about diffuse thinning would be appreciated...the only other thing I can state is my hair was always thin, so Im kinna worried even if my hairs come back thicker from propecia and minoxidil when I start mino, it wont really be worth it.
 

powersam

Senior Member
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none of these treatments can make new follicles appear, just wake up old ones. so if your hair was thin before hairloss then it will never be thicker than at that point. the rest of your question has been answered or does not have an answer.
 

Johnny24601

Experienced Member
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re:

Diffuse and receeding involve the same factors, the miniturization of hair follicles through the action of DHT. Many only experience this thinning and eventual follicle destruction in the front because those follicle have been recognized as the most "sensitive" to DHT. This is the reason why Merck and rogain do not claim to help for frontal hairloss, not because these treatments will not at least improve or slow down frontal recesion, but because these follicles are just too prone to destruction and the companies do not want their product discredited. Most experts agree that finasteride and minoxidil will improve frontal loss, but the distributors clearly state that it does not.
Women have no set pattern for hairloss though they do "tend" to have thinning all over.
The exact reason why one person just receeds and another has thinning all over are unknown. However, you will notice that diffuse thinners tend to thin everywhere but their thinnest areas are usually their hairline and crown. You will also notice that receeders tend to start to lose hair in their crown as time goes by and eventually the crown and frontall losses begin to meet in the middle it just takes a lot more time then thinners.
Therefor, there is no real difference between a thinner and a receeder aside from the fact that the thinner simply has more follicles that are sensitive to DHT.
I would point out that I am no doctor and my comments are based on my own research and understanding of your question.
 
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