triton2
Established Member
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I have always wondered what’s the reason behind the fact that, after a certain amount of time, you begin to lose the hair gained through 5AR blocker usage while you keep using it as usual.
I would understand that your hairloss would either just stop or slow down, but it’s the regrowth what puzzless me. I’ve thought something like this might be a possible explanation for the regrowth seen:
1) Your body "restores" hair at a 1x speed for instance.
2) Your endogenous DHT "screws" hair at a 3x speed for instance.
Then: given the fact that "screwing" speed is 3 fold higher than "restoring" speed you'll always lose hair thru time.
Now, let’s suppose you begin taking a 5AR blocker and reduce "screwing" speed to , let's say, 0,5x... then, given the fact that it's lower than "restoring" speed (1x), you begin to grow some hair back. Why would, after a certain number of months, you begin to lose hair? Is it that 'screwing' speed begins to accelerate again as a result of AR upregulation? Is it that your 5arblocker is no longer SO effective at blocking 5AR? Is it that "restoring" speed, for some reason, goes down?
I have one more question yet:
On the other hand, I cannot understand the statement I’ve read several times from many people, which was something like this: “If you use finasteride for X years and avoid a certain quantity of hair from falling off, when you quit using it you’ll reach a point where your hair would be in the same state it would be hadn’t you ever used anythingâ€. I can understand that you lose the hair you REGREW using finasteride; what I cannot understand is that you begin to lose at high speed what you RETAINED (as opposed to regrew) until it reaches a point where, after a certain amount of time, your hair is just the same, hadn’t you ever used it or had you used it for 10 years and then quitted. It makes no sense to me that having dermal papilla ARs strongly activated for 20 years has the same result as having them mildly (by using finasteride) activated for 10 years and then strongly activated for 10 more years; it SHOULDN’T be the same! Any explanation for this?
Thank you.
I would understand that your hairloss would either just stop or slow down, but it’s the regrowth what puzzless me. I’ve thought something like this might be a possible explanation for the regrowth seen:
1) Your body "restores" hair at a 1x speed for instance.
2) Your endogenous DHT "screws" hair at a 3x speed for instance.
Then: given the fact that "screwing" speed is 3 fold higher than "restoring" speed you'll always lose hair thru time.
Now, let’s suppose you begin taking a 5AR blocker and reduce "screwing" speed to , let's say, 0,5x... then, given the fact that it's lower than "restoring" speed (1x), you begin to grow some hair back. Why would, after a certain number of months, you begin to lose hair? Is it that 'screwing' speed begins to accelerate again as a result of AR upregulation? Is it that your 5arblocker is no longer SO effective at blocking 5AR? Is it that "restoring" speed, for some reason, goes down?
I have one more question yet:
On the other hand, I cannot understand the statement I’ve read several times from many people, which was something like this: “If you use finasteride for X years and avoid a certain quantity of hair from falling off, when you quit using it you’ll reach a point where your hair would be in the same state it would be hadn’t you ever used anythingâ€. I can understand that you lose the hair you REGREW using finasteride; what I cannot understand is that you begin to lose at high speed what you RETAINED (as opposed to regrew) until it reaches a point where, after a certain amount of time, your hair is just the same, hadn’t you ever used it or had you used it for 10 years and then quitted. It makes no sense to me that having dermal papilla ARs strongly activated for 20 years has the same result as having them mildly (by using finasteride) activated for 10 years and then strongly activated for 10 more years; it SHOULDN’T be the same! Any explanation for this?
Thank you.