Androgen Receptors Question (and Some Reflection)

[Lobo00]

Hi everyone, I would like to ask you a question about androgen receptors and the up/down regulation process.

- First, is it true that if we lower the DHT amount in the body with a DHT blocker like Finasteride or Dutasteride for a period of time, is there an up-regulation of the androgen receptors? (are there specific androgen receptors for DHT or are there common androgen receptors for all androgens?).
Does anyone have any ideas or evidence and experience to report?

- Second, assuming the process of up-regulation of ARs, would it be more effective to induce this process by taking Finasteride/Dutasteride and then lowering the DHT amount or by taking RU58841 and then deactivating the androgen receptors while leaving the DHT amount unaltered?

Thanks.

 

[Retinoid]

There is just the AR, not a DHT receptor.

It is possible there is some upregulation of ARs when taking a DHT inibitor--with Finasteride there is less of a freakout by your body (no real increases in LH for example) so I surmise it is less of an issue.

Yes, a good topical anti-androgen is definitely more preferable than a DHT inhibitor. I probably would never use RU though I am definitely looking forward to when Breezula will be on the market. Possibly around 2022.

 

[Lobo00]

There is just the AR, not a DHT receptor.

It is possible there is some upregulation of ARs when taking a DHT inibitor--with Finasteride there is less of a freakout by your body (no real increases in LH for example) so I surmise it is less of an issue.

Yes, a good topical anti-androgen is definitely more preferable than a DHT inhibitor. I probably would never use RU though I am definitely looking forward to when Breezula will be on the market. Possibly around 2022.

So in your opinion, to cause, NOT TO PREVENT, the up-regulation of ARs, would an androgen receptor blocker (RU58841) be more effective than DHT inhibitor (finasteride/dutasteride)? Or is it the other way around?
Thanks.

 

[Retinoid]

So in your opinion, to cause, NOT TO PREVENT, the up-regulation of ARs, would an androgen receptor blocker (RU58841) be more effective than DHT inhibitor (finasteride/dutasteride)? Or is it the other way around?
Thanks.

A good topical androgen receptor antagonist that does not affect other tissues (no systemic absorption) is optimal and going to be the most effective. RU is not more effective than DHT inhibitors. DHT is essentially the Androgen that works in the follicles. Without 5AR there is very little activation of the AR due to lack of DHT being converted.

 

[Lobo00]

A good topical androgen receptor antagonist that does not affect other tissues (no systemic absorption) is optimal and going to be the most effective. RU is not more effective than DHT inhibitors. DHT is essentially the Androgen that works in the follicles. Without 5AR there is very little activation of the AR due to lack of DHT being converted.

Ok, thanks for the answer but I didn't understand exactly one thing:
If my goal is, in a tissue, to up-regulate the androgen receptors and then make them more sensitive to DHT, (leaving aside the talk of hair follicles and hair loss and talking chemically), should I in that tissue lower the amount of DHT or deactivate the androgen receptors?

In your opinion, thank you.

 

[Lobo00]

Ok, thanks for the answer but I didn't understand exactly one thing:
If my goal is, in a tissue, to up-regulate the androgen receptors and then make them more sensitive to DHT, (leaving aside the talk of hair follicles and hair loss and talking chemically), should I in that tissue lower the amount of DHT or deactivate the androgen receptors?

In your opinion, thank you.

Anyone? Thanks