BaldingHelpMe
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As we all know dutasteride is a dual inhibitor to both type-1 and type-2, and finasteride selectively inhibits type-2. But dutasteride has a better affinity to type-2 than finasteride, and provides a more complete inhibition of type-2 enzymes. What does that mean? Why would dutasteride inhibit type-2 more completely?
Does that mean there would be some type-2 enzymes left that do not get inhibited when taking finasteride only?
Does that mean there would be some type-2 enzymes left that do not get inhibited when taking finasteride only?