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Ive recently been watching a few FTM transitioning journies on youtube and my norwood radar picked up on the receding hairlines of some of the guys in the videos. We all know women also experience hairloss but in a diffuse unpatterned way with no hairline recession. So how can someone who is biologically female exhibit the same pattern of balding as biological males? Shouldn't they bald in the same manner as females?
I think myself and alot of people were under the impression that your hairloss pattern is pre determined in the womb.Common Male and Female hairloss is Androgenic Alopecia which has the same fundamental cause, DHT. Someone who is transitioning to a Male is clearly putting their follicles at risk of miniturisation from the dramatic increase of testosterone which is then converted into DHT. A biological cis female obviously has far less testosterone than a biological man so that is why they lose hair alot later in life but the way they lose it is almost always diffused and unpatterned with no signs of recession or crown balding. This surely is an anomaly in our understanding of hairloss?
I think myself and alot of people were under the impression that your hairloss pattern is pre determined in the womb.Common Male and Female hairloss is Androgenic Alopecia which has the same fundamental cause, DHT. Someone who is transitioning to a Male is clearly putting their follicles at risk of miniturisation from the dramatic increase of testosterone which is then converted into DHT. A biological cis female obviously has far less testosterone than a biological man so that is why they lose hair alot later in life but the way they lose it is almost always diffused and unpatterned with no signs of recession or crown balding. This surely is an anomaly in our understanding of hairloss?