I have a question regarding a possible limited number of hair strands coming from each follicle during a lifetime. On several information websites it is stated that a human hair follicle on the head has a limited capabality of producing new hair strands that is restricted to an amount of 25-30. Considering a 2-7 years anagen phase for each hair follicle, one has enough hair for 50-210 years under healthy circumstances.
Hairloss explanation at such a website (http://www.norgilcanada.com/en/services-and-treatments/natural-cycles-of-hair.html):
In short, the elevation of alpha 5 reductase results in shortening of the anagen phase (growth phase) of hair and the deminution of hair in the growth phase. The duration of each cycle will diminish considerably and several cycle-years will pass in several months. Hair cycles, that should have lasted a lifetime, will be spent much more rapidly, and this will at first result in a lightening of the hair, and then in progressive total hair loss on large portions of the scalp.
If the above is true, I wonder why people (not all) do experience regrowth from medications like finasteride, dutasteride, minoxidil, etc.? If hair is gone or progressively miniaturized (i.e. participating in one of the last hair cycles the hair follicle is capable of producing), then regrowth would not be possible since the hair follicle should (almost) be exhausted?
Does anyone have an explanation for this? Can anyone verify or refute the postulated theory?
I would be really grateful!
Thanks in advance.
Hairloss explanation at such a website (http://www.norgilcanada.com/en/services-and-treatments/natural-cycles-of-hair.html):
In short, the elevation of alpha 5 reductase results in shortening of the anagen phase (growth phase) of hair and the deminution of hair in the growth phase. The duration of each cycle will diminish considerably and several cycle-years will pass in several months. Hair cycles, that should have lasted a lifetime, will be spent much more rapidly, and this will at first result in a lightening of the hair, and then in progressive total hair loss on large portions of the scalp.
If the above is true, I wonder why people (not all) do experience regrowth from medications like finasteride, dutasteride, minoxidil, etc.? If hair is gone or progressively miniaturized (i.e. participating in one of the last hair cycles the hair follicle is capable of producing), then regrowth would not be possible since the hair follicle should (almost) be exhausted?
Does anyone have an explanation for this? Can anyone verify or refute the postulated theory?
I would be really grateful!
Thanks in advance.
