Hello everyone and happy holidays. So my hair loss story is a bit peculiar. I first noticed a change in my hair’s density around the age of 17. It wasn’t noticeable then, it is barely noticeable now, four years later (I am 21 years old). So the area that is affected the most is the hairline and the frontal half of the top of me four five inches behind the hairline area). My temples are creeping backwards and the whole area is thinning out. If I part my hair I can see many gaps, either completely empty or the gaps have miniaturized translucent follicles. About a year ago I decided to start using minoxidil on my affected areas. I had already been using it for facial hair growth and I had gotten satisfying results, that gave me hopes that it would work for my hair but the scalp and that beard follicles are a completely different story (only one area is affected by dht as we all know). I had read that the first months of applying minoxidil could cause shedding due to the synchronizing of the hair cycle. But that didn’t happen in my case. I had shaved my hair because I didn’t want the shedding to be obvious, but I noticed no change in the density of my hair (obviushort ones are more hard to detect but I am kind of ocd so that’s not an issue for me). 9-10 months later of pretty consistent use (once a day or at worst every two days, usually once a day) and I have gotten no gains, still shedding a ton of dead (translucent) hairs and my hair has receded and thinned out more. I am not planning to use finasteride and I don’t have a problem with shaving it off, I just want to grow out my hair long one more time and want to maintain a respectable density for some more years (2-3). So my question is, since there was NO shedding and NO added density as a result of using minoxidil for almost ten months, can I safely say that it didn’t work on my scalp and stop using it without the fear of a big shed? I started applying minoxidil in March 2020. I have drawn the dates on the pics below so that you can see the progression.
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