2% vs 5%

el gordo

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Does anyone take 2% rogaine? It seems like everyone uses 5%. If you use 5% do you only use it once a day?
 

Bryan

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The 2% and 5% versions of Rogaine are essentially the same thing, because once the alcohol and the water evaporates from either one, they BOTH become saturated solutions of minoxidil in propylene glycol. The only real difference between the two is that the 5% version is cheaper per unit of minoxidil.
 

abovedagame

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Bryan said:
The 2% and 5% versions of Rogaine are essentially the same thing, because once the alcohol and the water evaporates from either one, they BOTH become saturated solutions of minoxidil in propylene glycol. The only real difference between the two is that the 5% version is cheaper per unit of minoxidil.

Bryan, I don't understand what you're trying to get at here. Are you saying the 2% is not more effective than the 5% for either short or long term? And are you also saying that using less of the 5% would be as or more effective as the 2%? Why would they release a 5% if 2% is as effective? Dr. Lee always states that minoxidil's effectiveness is dose-dependant meaning the higher concentration the better.
 

hairwegoagain

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A 5% solution has 2.5X the active ingredient (minoxidil) as a 2% solution, per unit volume.
 

KielMcK

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i have used both and 5% is more sufficient. Ya dickheads.
 

el gordo

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I should have provided more background in my initial post. I'm losing my hair at my temples. It's starting to go pretty far back. So I plan on starting Minoxidil.

I thought I'd start slow with the 2%. However it seems that most people use the 5% and I couldn't find alot of discussion on the usefulness of 2%. That's what lead to my question about the 2% vs 5%.

What do you guys think I should do, start with the 2% or just go right to the 5%?
 

Toyboy

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Gordo i think you should go for the 5% once a day buddy.2% seems to be useless for alot of people.
 

Bryan

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abovedagame said:
Bryan, I don't understand what you're trying to get at here. Are you saying the 2% is not more effective than the 5% for either short or long term?

I'm saying that regardless of whether you're using a 2% Rogaine solution or a 5% Rogaine solution, as long as you apply enough of either one to provide the same physical amount of minoxidil, the results should be about the same. In other words, applying 2 1/2 mL of the 2% solution will provide the same amount of minoxidil in a saturated PG solution as 1 mL of the 5% solution.

abovedagame said:
And are you also saying that using less of the 5% would be as or more effective as the 2%?

Depends on HOW MUCH less of the 5% that you're talking about, obviously.

abovedagame said:
Why would they release a 5% if 2% is as effective?

Well, the 5% is obviously more concentrated, so you can apply less of the solution to get the same results, which many people would consider to be an advantage. Furthermore, what I've always called "The Numbers Game" is undoubtedly very important in the mind of the public. It just seems a lot SEXIER to be using a 5% solution instead of a 2% solution in the mind of the public, even if there's no real scientific requirement for using a 5% solution! :)

abovedagame said:
Dr. Lee always states that minoxidil's effectiveness is dose-dependant meaning the higher concentration the better.

Sure, but you have to take into consideration exactly what it means when you use the term "dose-dependent". When restricted to the same physical QUANTITY of Rogaine (in other words, 1 mL of solution twice a day), the 5% solution will always out-perform the 2% solution for the simple reason that there's MORE MINOXIDIL in that dose. But applying the two solutions in doses that provide the same amount of minoxidil will produce the same results.

Having said all that, I should add one little theoretical possibility: I suppose it's not out of the question that 2 1/2 mL of the 2% solution could conceivably be a bit more effective than 1 mL of the 5% solution, because the larger amount of alcohol in the first one could provide more penetrating power for the minoxidil. But again, that's very theoretical. A well-known in vitro study showed that the more alcohol you have in a vehicle, the better the penetration of minoxidil through mouse skin, up to a limit of 90% alcohol. The 2% version of Rogaine uses a vehicle with 60% alcohol, and the 5% version of Rogaine uses only 30% alcohol, so the 2% version probably penetrates a little better than the other one (other things being equal), at least until the alcohol has completely evaporated while sitting on your scalp.
 

abovedagame

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Bryan said:
abovedagame said:
Bryan, I don't understand what you're trying to get at here. Are you saying the 2% is not more effective than the 5% for either short or long term?

I'm saying that regardless of whether you're using a 2% Rogaine solution or a 5% Rogaine solution, as long as you apply enough of either one to provide the same physical amount of minoxidil, the results should be about the same. In other words, applying 2 1/2 mL of the 2% solution will provide the same amount of minoxidil in a saturated PG solution as 1 mL of the 5% solution.

abovedagame said:
And are you also saying that using less of the 5% would be as or more effective as the 2%?

Depends on HOW MUCH less of the 5% that you're talking about, obviously.

abovedagame said:
Why would they release a 5% if 2% is as effective?

Well, the 5% is obviously more concentrated, so you can apply less of the solution to get the same results, which many people would consider to be an advantage. Furthermore, what I've always called "The Numbers Game" is undoubtedly very important in the mind of the public. It just seems a lot SEXIER to be using a 5% solution instead of a 2% solution in the mind of the public, even if there's no real scientific requirement for using a 5% solution! :)

abovedagame said:
Dr. Lee always states that minoxidil's effectiveness is dose-dependant meaning the higher concentration the better.

Sure, but you have to take into consideration exactly what it means when you use the term "dose-dependent". When restricted to the same physical QUANTITY of Rogaine (in other words, 1 mL of solution twice a day), the 5% solution will always out-perform the 2% solution for the simple reason that there's MORE MINOXIDIL in that dose. But applying the two solutions in doses that provide the same amount of minoxidil will produce the same results.

Having said all that, I should add one little theoretical possibility: I suppose it's not out of the question that 2 1/2 mL of the 2% solution could conceivably be a bit more effective than 1 mL of the 5% solution, because the larger amount of alcohol in the first one could provide more penetrating power for the minoxidil. But again, that's very theoretical. A well-known in vitro study showed that the more alcohol you have in a vehicle, the better the penetration of minoxidil through mouse skin, up to a limit of 90% alcohol. The 2% version of Rogaine uses a vehicle with 60% alcohol, and the 5% version of Rogaine uses only 30% alcohol, so the 2% version probably penetrates a little better than the other one (other things being equal), at least until the alcohol has completely evaporated while sitting on your scalp.


Bryan, in regards to your last statement. If we look at the new rogaine foam, there have been statements made by the manufacturer that the foam is more effective when compared to the solution. They point out that the versafoam technology which they use is what is behind that. In reality would it just be the fact that the foam just contains much more alcohol?

I also have one more kinda off topic question....if I am applying the foam to the front portion of my scalp (Norwood 3 hairline) how many parts should I section my front tuft into to get the foam to the scalp. Currently I just part that front tuft into 3 sections and also apply the foam to the bald temples. I am worried about getting the minoxidil to all areas needed....

take care bud
 

Bryan

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abovedagame said:
Bryan, in regards to your last statement. If we look at the new rogaine foam, there have been statements made by the manufacturer that the foam is more effective when compared to the solution.

Huh? I'm surprised to hear that, because I've been under the distinct impression that Upjohn specifically has NOT made any claims about the efficacy of the foam, compared to regular Rogaine solution. Can you point me to a link or something where they make that claim?

abovedagame said:
They point out that the versafoam technology which they use is what is behind that. In reality would it just be the fact that the foam just contains much more alcohol?

I doubt that it has anything to do with alcohol. I don't really know anything about either the product itself or its "versafoam" technology, but my guess is that it has something to do with some other penetration enhancer of some sort in it.

abovedagame said:
I also have one more kinda off topic question....if I am applying the foam to the front portion of my scalp (Norwood 3 hairline) how many parts should I section my front tuft into to get the foam to the scalp. Currently I just part that front tuft into 3 sections and also apply the foam to the bald temples. I am worried about getting the minoxidil to all areas needed....

I'm at a disadvantage here because I've never really followed the foam much, and don't really know anything about it. What do the instructions say about its proper use? What you describe yourself sounds reasonable to me...
 

abovedagame

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Bryan said:
abovedagame said:
Bryan, in regards to your last statement. If we look at the new rogaine foam, there have been statements made by the manufacturer that the foam is more effective when compared to the solution.

Huh? I'm surprised to hear that, because I've been under the distinct impression that Upjohn specifically has NOT made any claims about the efficacy of the foam, compared to regular Rogaine solution. Can you point me to a link or something where they make that claim?

abovedagame said:
They point out that the versafoam technology which they use is what is behind that. In reality would it just be the fact that the foam just contains much more alcohol?

I doubt that it has anything to do with alcohol. I don't really know anything about either the product itself or its "versafoam" technology, but my guess is that it has something to do with some other penetration enhancer of some sort in it.

abovedagame said:
I also have one more kinda off topic question....if I am applying the foam to the front portion of my scalp (Norwood 3 hairline) how many parts should I section my front tuft into to get the foam to the scalp. Currently I just part that front tuft into 3 sections and also apply the foam to the bald temples. I am worried about getting the minoxidil to all areas needed....

I'm at a disadvantage here because I've never really followed the foam much, and don't really know anything about it. What do the instructions say about its proper use? What you describe yourself sounds reasonable to me...


1. I don't have any specific links but as I follow this board as well as HLH there are many posts that state that the phase 3 trials for the foam showed a ~80% response rate to the foam whereas the solution has a ~50-60% response rate. Correct me if I am wrong tho.

2. The directions for the foam are pretty basic. It says to just apply half a capful to thinning hair areas and massage in.

3. One more question, I've followed these boards for a while. What does your regimen now consist of and how has it been working out for you. I know you try to follow just the topical route.
 
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