A lot of us notice from the age of 18 we're starting to recede. Our hair is thinning, our foreheads getting bigger and sure enough each year we're a little worse off - this makes sense. Hormonally the testosterone and presumably DHT being produced is pretty equal, and so the drip feed effect of it on our follicles is slow and consistent from when our bodies develop to that point.
However, whats the reasoning behind why some dudes can have zero hair loss up to the age of 25 then all of a sudden go NW6 in 2 years or less ? Or why some go to 35-40 with NW2 then suddenly shoot to NW5 ? I would have thought as our test becomes produced at a lower rate as we age our hairless would progress but at a consistently slower rate ?
However, whats the reasoning behind why some dudes can have zero hair loss up to the age of 25 then all of a sudden go NW6 in 2 years or less ? Or why some go to 35-40 with NW2 then suddenly shoot to NW5 ? I would have thought as our test becomes produced at a lower rate as we age our hairless would progress but at a consistently slower rate ?
