I have a question regarding changes in hormonal levels while using DHT inhibitors like finasteride (etc. Propecia).
A we know the androgen glands produce daily a specific amount of androgen Testosterone (T), let’s say 600 units.
From this amount, a specific quantity is used for the bodily functions, such as muscle metabolism, and another quantity is left free, and it is unbound (unused), called free testosterone FT.
In the process of the formation of DHT, T is not “consumed†in any way. It is not destroyed, it is simply transformed. The molecule of T receives 2 atoms of Hydrogen and it is converted to DHT.
The amount of T required to form DHT is about 1/100 to 1/200 of the total T produced in the body, meaning you need 1 molecule of T from 100 to obtain the amount of DHT present in the body.
So, the amount of T needed to form DHT is so small that in the endocrinology filed, this amount of T which is used in the conversion process, is considered not to be a of major significance.
DHT is in blood serum measured in pg / ml, and T in ng / ml. So the amount of DHT is hundreds of time less then the amount of T.
As such, there from mathematical point of view there is no biological great increase or decrease in T. Mathematically speaking we can can see that from the 600 units of T produced only about 3 to 6 units were converted to DHT.
However, the remaining 594 units left, have a just an equal effect on the body, as 600 units.
The body naturally does not compensate such small reduction of T.
As result, there is no increase of T in the body, but merely a very small, really small reduction of T.
Also as result, the glands will not necessarily compensate for the use of T in the DHT formation, because T was already produced.
I know if you reduce conversion of T to DHT (T - > DHT) Then if I understand simply math there is more amount of T which is not converted to DHT, so as result we have increased level of Testosterone in blood, scalp and etc, but my question is why Propecia raises Testosterone (and therefore because of aromatization Estrogen level) by 10-15 %, if as I just described 1% or even less of T is converted to DHT?
I suppose finasteride. inhibits production of 5ard enzymes or interferes in production of other substances which causes other imbalances with hormonal and enzyme levels.I have question regarding changes in hormonal levels while using DHT inhibitors like finasteride (etc. Propecia).
A we know the androgen glands produce daily a specific amount of androgen Testosterone (T), let’s say 600 units.
From this amount, a specific quantity is used for the bodily functions, such as muscle metabolism, and another quantity is left free, and it is unbound (unused), called free testosterone FT.
In the process of the formation of DHT, T is not “consumed†in any way. It is not destroyed, it is simply transformed. The molecule of T receives 2 atoms of Hydrogen and it is converted to DHT.
The amount of T required to form DHT is about 1/100 to 1/200 of the total T produced in the body, meaning you need 1 molecule of T from 100 to obtain the amount of DHT present in the body.
So, the amount of T needed to form DHT is so small that in the endocrinology filed, this amount of T which is used in the conversion process, is considered not to be a of major significance.
DHT is in blood serum measured in pg / ml, and T in ng / ml. So the amount of DHT is hundreds of time less then the amount of T.
As such, there from mathematical point of view there is no biological great increase or decrease in T. Mathematically speaking we can can see that from the 600 units of T produced only about 3 to 6 units were converted to DHT.
However, the remaining 594 units left, have a just an equal effect on the body, as 600 units.
The body naturally does not compensate such small reduction of T.
As result, there is no increase of T in the body, but merely a very small, really small reduction of T.
Also as result, the glands will not necessarily compensate for the use of T in the DHT formation, because T was already produced.
I know if you reduce conversion of T to DHT (T - > DHT) Then if I understand simply math there is more amount of T which is not converted to DHT, so as result we have increased level of Testosterone in blood, scalp and etc, but my question is why Propecia raises Testosterone (and therefore because of aromatization Estrogen level) by 10-15 %, if as I just described 1% or even less of T is converted to DHT?
I suppose finasteride. inhibits production of 5ard enzymes or interferes in production of other substances which causes other imbalances with hormonal and enzyme levels.
A we know the androgen glands produce daily a specific amount of androgen Testosterone (T), let’s say 600 units.
From this amount, a specific quantity is used for the bodily functions, such as muscle metabolism, and another quantity is left free, and it is unbound (unused), called free testosterone FT.
In the process of the formation of DHT, T is not “consumed†in any way. It is not destroyed, it is simply transformed. The molecule of T receives 2 atoms of Hydrogen and it is converted to DHT.
The amount of T required to form DHT is about 1/100 to 1/200 of the total T produced in the body, meaning you need 1 molecule of T from 100 to obtain the amount of DHT present in the body.
So, the amount of T needed to form DHT is so small that in the endocrinology filed, this amount of T which is used in the conversion process, is considered not to be a of major significance.
DHT is in blood serum measured in pg / ml, and T in ng / ml. So the amount of DHT is hundreds of time less then the amount of T.
As such, there from mathematical point of view there is no biological great increase or decrease in T. Mathematically speaking we can can see that from the 600 units of T produced only about 3 to 6 units were converted to DHT.
However, the remaining 594 units left, have a just an equal effect on the body, as 600 units.
The body naturally does not compensate such small reduction of T.
As result, there is no increase of T in the body, but merely a very small, really small reduction of T.
Also as result, the glands will not necessarily compensate for the use of T in the DHT formation, because T was already produced.
I know if you reduce conversion of T to DHT (T - > DHT) Then if I understand simply math there is more amount of T which is not converted to DHT, so as result we have increased level of Testosterone in blood, scalp and etc, but my question is why Propecia raises Testosterone (and therefore because of aromatization Estrogen level) by 10-15 %, if as I just described 1% or even less of T is converted to DHT?
I suppose finasteride. inhibits production of 5ard enzymes or interferes in production of other substances which causes other imbalances with hormonal and enzyme levels.I have question regarding changes in hormonal levels while using DHT inhibitors like finasteride (etc. Propecia).
A we know the androgen glands produce daily a specific amount of androgen Testosterone (T), let’s say 600 units.
From this amount, a specific quantity is used for the bodily functions, such as muscle metabolism, and another quantity is left free, and it is unbound (unused), called free testosterone FT.
In the process of the formation of DHT, T is not “consumed†in any way. It is not destroyed, it is simply transformed. The molecule of T receives 2 atoms of Hydrogen and it is converted to DHT.
The amount of T required to form DHT is about 1/100 to 1/200 of the total T produced in the body, meaning you need 1 molecule of T from 100 to obtain the amount of DHT present in the body.
So, the amount of T needed to form DHT is so small that in the endocrinology filed, this amount of T which is used in the conversion process, is considered not to be a of major significance.
DHT is in blood serum measured in pg / ml, and T in ng / ml. So the amount of DHT is hundreds of time less then the amount of T.
As such, there from mathematical point of view there is no biological great increase or decrease in T. Mathematically speaking we can can see that from the 600 units of T produced only about 3 to 6 units were converted to DHT.
However, the remaining 594 units left, have a just an equal effect on the body, as 600 units.
The body naturally does not compensate such small reduction of T.
As result, there is no increase of T in the body, but merely a very small, really small reduction of T.
Also as result, the glands will not necessarily compensate for the use of T in the DHT formation, because T was already produced.
I know if you reduce conversion of T to DHT (T - > DHT) Then if I understand simply math there is more amount of T which is not converted to DHT, so as result we have increased level of Testosterone in blood, scalp and etc, but my question is why Propecia raises Testosterone (and therefore because of aromatization Estrogen level) by 10-15 %, if as I just described 1% or even less of T is converted to DHT?
I suppose finasteride. inhibits production of 5ard enzymes or interferes in production of other substances which causes other imbalances with hormonal and enzyme levels.