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I've come to terms with hair loss now. I'm turning 20, and while the progression is very slow, it follows my father's pattern -balding now- Norwood 4/5 by 55. For him, he was a Norwood 3 at around 35.
I'm okay with this, but I want to be an actor and to give myself the best chance of work I need to get on the medication now (pragmatism). Since my hair loss begun less than a year ago (I'm still a NW1 on the left temple, NW1.5 on right), I feel there's a reasonable chance I might get my right temple back to an NW1 if I get myself on meds now... correct?
Anyway!
I've looked at the statistics from the 10 year Propecia study, and in that, they suggest that most men that respond well to Propecia initially do not experience much (if any) loss even 10 years later. So what I want to know is why is there so many people substantiating the idea that often Finasteride loses its efficacy after 5 years?
Surely the findings are normally distributed and are applicable to men generally. So, is the idea that it commonly loses efficacy after 5 years mostly just people exaggerating a minority?
Again, my hair loss has started early like my father but I think it will be a slow loss over 4 decades. Can I expect to see my hair start disappearing at 25, or, with the right program, is it feasible that I might keep a thick, full head of hair into my thirties?
Thanks in advance, have a good day!
I'm okay with this, but I want to be an actor and to give myself the best chance of work I need to get on the medication now (pragmatism). Since my hair loss begun less than a year ago (I'm still a NW1 on the left temple, NW1.5 on right), I feel there's a reasonable chance I might get my right temple back to an NW1 if I get myself on meds now... correct?
Anyway!
I've looked at the statistics from the 10 year Propecia study, and in that, they suggest that most men that respond well to Propecia initially do not experience much (if any) loss even 10 years later. So what I want to know is why is there so many people substantiating the idea that often Finasteride loses its efficacy after 5 years?
Surely the findings are normally distributed and are applicable to men generally. So, is the idea that it commonly loses efficacy after 5 years mostly just people exaggerating a minority?
Again, my hair loss has started early like my father but I think it will be a slow loss over 4 decades. Can I expect to see my hair start disappearing at 25, or, with the right program, is it feasible that I might keep a thick, full head of hair into my thirties?
Thanks in advance, have a good day!