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I found this among the FAQ on HairLossTalk.com:
"This is marked by such signs as greatly increased facial oil, increased pimples, and greatly elevated libido. It's possible that in certain cases such hyperandrogenicity overcomes the hair-protective effect of, say, finasteride, though this does not appear to be the case for the vast majority of people."
Does it mean that there's a chance that hyperandrogenicity can render finasteride ineffective?
"This is marked by such signs as greatly increased facial oil, increased pimples, and greatly elevated libido. It's possible that in certain cases such hyperandrogenicity overcomes the hair-protective effect of, say, finasteride, though this does not appear to be the case for the vast majority of people."
Does it mean that there's a chance that hyperandrogenicity can render finasteride ineffective?