So first about the dosage, after reading a lot of material and weighing the pro's and con's of starting finasteride I finally decided to start it today (21 year old with Norwood 2.5 and diffuse thinning) I felt it was the right decision, but I am taking a cautious approach taking only 0.25 mg per day. Now my question is, I have read from several people on here that finasteride isn't dose dependent, meaning that 0.25 will suppress almost as much dht as 1 mg. My question is then why did doctors decide to make a 5mg finasteride pill for enlarged prostate? I have seen graphs and I do understand that 0.25 is almost the same as 1mg, but is 1mg almost the same as 5mg? Thanks for the input
Next question is about splitting pills. So because I am splitting 1mg propecia into 4 pieces there is some powder, how dangerous is this for pregnant women/women wanting to become pregnant. I try to clean it up as much as i can by always splitting on top of a paper towel and then throwing out the paper towel, how dangerous is trace evidence of finasteride for women wanting to be pregnant or who are already pregnant? Thanks alot.
Next question is about splitting pills. So because I am splitting 1mg propecia into 4 pieces there is some powder, how dangerous is this for pregnant women/women wanting to become pregnant. I try to clean it up as much as i can by always splitting on top of a paper towel and then throwing out the paper towel, how dangerous is trace evidence of finasteride for women wanting to be pregnant or who are already pregnant? Thanks alot.
