Propecia and baseline

[thedizzle]

i have a question in regards to returning to baseline after stoping treatments. Let's say you take finasteride for 5 years, and then decide to stop, does this mean you will eventually go back to exactly where you where 5 years prior before you started, or does this mean that you go to the state that you would have been at five years later with no treatment (essentially much worse). Thank fellas!

 

[Aplunk1]

About when you started--- minus the temples and hairline, probably.

 

[thedizzle]

Thanks alot aplunk. Anyone else want to chime in?

 

[Felk]

Hmmm... the basic baseline idea as stated by aplunk is encouraging, but the bit about the temples/hairline being gone... damn

Im 18 and I'd only begin propecia with the intent to keep my hairline/temples... so i wonder what i should do? not just gamble on having better treatments in 5 years...

Perhaps just spironolactone on the temples for now? Is spironolactone/nizoral effective alone i wonder?

 

[Uni Student]

You lose hairline/temples by taking propecia?

 

[Aplunk1]

"There isn't sufficient evidence to support that Propecia works on the temples or receding hairlines."

Meaning that you'll probably lose your hairline and/or temples.

It happens...

spironolactone is the best way to keep your hairline.

 

[Z]

your hair will return how it would have been after 5 years of no treatment essentially and likely to be significantly worse.

 

[Felk]

About when you started--- minus the temples and hairline, probably.

is very different to...

your hair will return how it would have been after 5 years of no treatment essentially and likely to be significantly worse.

So with a simple example, when a 20 year old begins propecia, if he stops at 25, does he end up with hair of a 20 year old or a 25 year old?

 

[markelbentley]

what do you think? if i started taking propecia and 5 yrs later i quit and then my hair went back to the thickness from 5 yrs ago, that would be fing sweet. obviously its going to get worse.

 

[Deaner]

Okay, as far as I understand the question is whether loss, upon cessation of therapy, will be exaggerated and accelerated as to match the point it would have been if Propecia therapy had never begun. As far as I've understood to this point, loss will be slightly accelerated so that after a while, using the example of therapy beginning at age 20, ending at age 25, by the time you're 26 your hair is the roughly the same as it would've been either way.

As far as I understand, the reason is because the sensitivity to DHT of the follicles has been progressing all while your DHT production has been suppressed, so sensitivity is as high as it would have been if Propecia had never been used. It is this increasing sensitivity, not an increasing level of DHT in the scalp, that is theorized to make hairloss progress in the later years of Propecia therapy. Thus, loss and miniaturization is relatively more severe than it would have been if it were a gradual loss. Don't quote me on all this however, this is what I seem to have understood from what I've read.