The hyperandrogenic reflex: Some say that it doesn't exist at all, others are sure that they're suffering from it.
The question is: If the body adapts to the decreased DHT level in the blood by upregulating androgen reception, is this upregulation high enough such that 30% remaining DHT is able to damage the follicle more than 100% DHT without upregulation of androgen receptors ?
I did search for this phenomenon too but I couldn't find something with a scientific background. (Don't expect Merck doing sth. like that)
Intuitively, I would say if the body is able to upregulate the receptors he should also be able to downregulate them. Hence, the effects of the reflex should disappear after stopping with Finasteride.
Perhaps could the reflex be avoided if you slowly increase the dosage of Finasteride if we consider the reflex as a "shock reaction".
BIS