Is 0.25 mg equivalent to 1 mg according to this?

[skallagrimur]

http://www.physics.upenn.edu/facultyinfo/frankel/papers/propeciafda2/[/url]]Figure:
http://www.physics.upenn.edu/facultyinfo/frankel/papers/propeciafda2/img1.gif
As seen in Fig. 1, reproduced from the FDA material, the percent change of DHT for placebo and .01 mg finasteride were identical and essentially zero within a reasonable statistical estimate. The change dropped by 60 % for a .05 mg dose and stayed that way for all dosages up to 5 mg. Thus a 20 times smaller dose than PROPECIA had the same effect on the DHT.

Figure:
http://www.physics.upenn.edu/facultyinfo/frankel/papers/propeciafda2/img2.gif
A similar dose dependence was seen for the serum DHT (Fig. 2) where the effect was independent of dose above 0.2 milligrams.
Figure:
http://www.physics.upenn.edu/facultyinfo/frankel/papers/propeciafda2/img3.gif
The dose dependence appears also in the accompanying rise in T, one-onehundredth the 5 mg dose being identical in its effect on the scalp skin testosterone. See Fig. 3.

Can anyone shed a light on this?

 

[skallagrimur]

Now I see this chart on another post..

..and I'm just baffled!

 

[zeroheat]

The clinical trials showed that doses between 0.2 mg and 5 mg could have about the same effect on the scalp. That's a very wide range. The 1 mg/day dose is recommended to treat male pattern baldness because it encompasses three standards deviations of those being treated and will include ~97% of patients.

 

[skallagrimur]

The clinical trials showed that doses between 0.2 mg and 5 mg could have about the same effect on the scalp.

Then wouldn't it be logic to start with 0.25mg (1/4 $), the first 6 months. Then if that dosage does not yield results, increase it up to 0.5mg?

The 1 mg/day dose is recommended to treat male pattern baldness because it encompasses three standards deviations of those being treated and will include ~97% of patients.

Are you quoting a study? Could you give me the link?

Thanks for the responce

 

[zeroheat]

Oops, forgot to include a link.
This is coming from famous Dr. Lee, owner of minoxidil.com
http://minoxidil.com/subpages/hairloss_ ... i.html#i01

 

[He-Bat]

If 0.25 and 1mg could give you almost the same result, then why not start with 0.25mg? Why 1mg? That doesn't make sense.