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I am referring to the study "
The effects of finasteride on scalp skin and serum androgen levels in men with androgenetic alopecia."
Unfortunately the full text is behind a paywall,I am curious about looking at the full set of data,as obviously the "Serum DHT levels declined significantly (P <.001) by 49.5%, 68.6%, 71.4%, and 72.2% in the 0.05, 0.2, 1, and 5 mg finasteride treatment groups, respectively." is based on averages.I am curious to look at stuff like was there outliers?Was there people who 2.5mg reduced dht by 90 percent while in others it reduced 50 percent?Also curious about whether whether the actual amount of dht lost seems to be tied to the amount of dht they already had or is it generally the same amount of dht loss no matter the original dht(ie if person "A" who has 100 dht units which is reduced to 30dht units(reduction of 70% dht,which is 70units of dht),generally does person "B" who has 200 dht get his reduced by 70 dht units or 70 percent of 200 which is 140 dht units
The effects of finasteride on scalp skin and serum androgen levels in men with androgenetic alopecia."
Unfortunately the full text is behind a paywall,I am curious about looking at the full set of data,as obviously the "Serum DHT levels declined significantly (P <.001) by 49.5%, 68.6%, 71.4%, and 72.2% in the 0.05, 0.2, 1, and 5 mg finasteride treatment groups, respectively." is based on averages.I am curious to look at stuff like was there outliers?Was there people who 2.5mg reduced dht by 90 percent while in others it reduced 50 percent?Also curious about whether whether the actual amount of dht lost seems to be tied to the amount of dht they already had or is it generally the same amount of dht loss no matter the original dht(ie if person "A" who has 100 dht units which is reduced to 30dht units(reduction of 70% dht,which is 70units of dht),generally does person "B" who has 200 dht get his reduced by 70 dht units or 70 percent of 200 which is 140 dht units