Has anyone ever thought...

docj077

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that maybe the various treatments out there aren't necessarily dealing with the problem at hand.

For instance, in the case of male pattern baldness what I don't understand is why doesn't a person have immediate diffuse thinning all over the scalp. I mean, every hair that is prone to miniturization should go that process from puberty on. I see some people that have that problem and it's recognizable. Men should loose their hair once testosterone begins to spike and not in their forties or thirties.

The problem I have is the phenomena of the receding hairline and crown balding. They just don't fit with what a person should expect to see if all androgen receptors will respond to DHT. If a person is loosing their hair from those areas, then they really should be experiencing hair loss all over their head and thinning from the very beginning. Such a limited scope doesn't seem possible. I don't understand why certain hair follicles can become receptive at only certain times in a man's life.

So, I guess the problem I'm trying to get at is perhaps we're missing something else here. There's been the science of parasites like Demodex and the theory that perhaps the blood supply is somewhat altered to the scalp. But, perhaps we're talking about a much larger disease process here.

If anyone is willing to respond, I'm very curious to know if anyone here was ever taken to a dermatologist or family doctor as a child for a dry scalp condition or other scalp/skin condition. I want to know if as a society we're impacting the condition and quality of our hair by changing sebum production conditions as children. If perhaps we're altering receptors and gene regulation, which is causing better conditions for parasites, upregulation of androgenic receptors, or inflammatory and autoimmune problems to occur.

Thanks for any input.
 
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