finasteride dose INdependent?

[br1]

Scientific question/doubt..

I've read a lot of ppl saying that finasteride is "dose independent", meaning that even a very low dose inhibits almost the same amount of DHT.. If so, why doctors use 5mg to threat BPH instead of 0.5mg ?


:ermm:

 

[Digidako]

1mg finasteride inhibits pretty much the same amount as 5mg finasteride.
It would have been ludicrous for the FDA to approve 5mg finasteride for hair loss, so they approved 1mg instead.
I doubt any of the BPH studies tested for dose-response, until Merck published their results from 1mg Propecia.

You're question is quite valid, but honestly i'm not sure

 

[br1]

1mg finasteride inhibits pretty much the same amount as 5mg finasteride.
It would have been ludicrous for the FDA to approve 5mg finasteride for hair loss, so they approved 1mg instead.
I doubt any of the BPH studies tested for dose-response, until Merck published their results from 1mg Propecia.

You're question is quite valid, but honestly i'm not sure

My question originates from one scientific paper someone posted a link in this very forum, where researches found that at doses of 1mg finasteride had reduced prostate volume by around 2% only. While the 5mg had reduced it by ~25%.