Difference between 2% and 5%

[Asmodeus]

Im a bit confused - while it seems logical, that 5% works better, since it has more minoxidil, the instructions i got with my 2% version are warning me of overdosing. Why exzactly is 5% better, couldnt you just use more of 2% (5% is not avaliable in my country, sadly - so im thinking about ordering it thru web, but im rather unsure why...)?
I would really appreciate your help!

 

[Bryan]

Why exzactly is 5% better, couldnt you just use more of 2% ...

Yes. I think that's perfectly reasonable.

Bryan

 

[Asmodeus]

So its just a matter of price (using 5% is not as expensive as using like two times more that the normal dosage is of 2%)?

So why do instructions i got with my 2% warn me of "not using more than 2x1ml dialy"?

 

[Bryan]

Because THEY LIE.

Drug company officials can't even go to the toilet without getting approval and authorization from the FDA! :wink: Why do the Rogaine instructions also say that the product doesn't work in the front, only in the back, despite scientific documentation that it DOES also work in the front?? Because the FDA won't let them say what we all know to be the truth.

Bryan

 

[Asmodeus]

So whats the point of 2% anyway? Marketing thing? For people having sides form 5% (those could just use less...)?