decro435
Experienced Member
- Reaction score
- 23
Well I've been looking at a way of tackling my hair loss without suffering the side effects I had when I took (1mg) Finasteride daily. After experimenting with Finasteride I noticed that when I took a single dose of (.5mg) Finasteride my head would not feel itchy for another 3 days. I thought well maybe thats just all in my head but I tried it again and had the same result.
After looking at the chart I saw that plasma levels of DHT would rise once again after 3-4 days:
I also discovered that taking (.2mg) is almost the same as taking (1mg) Finasteride:
http://www.hairloss-research.org/Update ... an-08.html
It also mentions that taking (.5mg) every 3 days is as effective as a daily dose of (1mg). For the educated users on this Forum , explain to me why this would/wouldn't be the case. What does it mean that the half life of the drug in the body is about 5 hours? Why would (1mg) be reccomended if it is not needed? Were these conclusions made by the Drug companies that sell Finasteride (Cipla)?
After looking at the chart I saw that plasma levels of DHT would rise once again after 3-4 days:
I also discovered that taking (.2mg) is almost the same as taking (1mg) Finasteride:
http://www.hairloss-research.org/Update ... an-08.html
It also mentions that taking (.5mg) every 3 days is as effective as a daily dose of (1mg). For the educated users on this Forum , explain to me why this would/wouldn't be the case. What does it mean that the half life of the drug in the body is about 5 hours? Why would (1mg) be reccomended if it is not needed? Were these conclusions made by the Drug companies that sell Finasteride (Cipla)?
