sunnylandslim
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Reading the "Long-term (5-year) multinational experience with finasteride 1 mg in the treatment of men with androgenetic alopecia" I read this in the "Discussion" part:
http://www.jle.com/en/revues/medecine/ejd/e-docs/00/01/88/FE/article.md
"Based on the predefined endpoints utilizing photographic methods (hair counts and global photographic assessment), peak efficacy was observed at one to two years of treatment with finasteride.
This observation of an apparent peaking effect is likely due, in part, to the previously-reported beneficial effects of finasteride on the hair growth cycle based on a phototrichogram study [26]. In that study, initiation of finasteride treatment was shown to increase the number of anagen-phase hairs and to increase the anagen to telogen ratio, consistent with normalization of the growth cycles of previously miniaturized hairs due to the release of hair follicles from the inhibitory effects of DHT [26]. Consistent with these results, finasteride treatment was also shown to increase the growth rate and/or thickness of hairs, based on analysis of serial hair weight measurements [27].
Because these beneficial changes in the hair growth cycle are dependent on when therapy with finasteride is initiated and occur rapidly, the affected hairs are driven to cycle in a synchronous manner.
If these hairs have somewhat similar anagen phase durations, they would enter telogen phase as the anagen (and catagen) phase ended, followed by subsequent shedding, in a partially synchronized fashion.
This would be expected to produce a gradual decline from peak hair count after a period of time equal to the average anagen phase duration. Eventually, as subsequent growth cycles recurred, these hairs would be expected to become increasingly independent, thereby losing their synchronous character as their growth cycles further normalized over time, leading to a sustained increase in hair count at a plateau above baseline, as suggested by the 5-year data presented here"
At start taking finasteride many hairs enter anagen (growth) and after a time (2,3,4 years, according to the length of your anagen phase), these hairs would enter then telogen phase and would fall posteriorly in a partially synchronized fashion .Later, with subsequent hair cycles the thing would go back to normal.
So at some point you will suffer a big shed period for that then these hairs out of sync resulting in more natural cycles.
This leads me to wonder if all these post of loss of effectiveness tend to see the 2,3,4 years are due to the timing of the fall and what we should do in those cases where good results would come to expect that everything is stable.
Does anyone has this happened?
http://www.jle.com/en/revues/medecine/ejd/e-docs/00/01/88/FE/article.md
"Based on the predefined endpoints utilizing photographic methods (hair counts and global photographic assessment), peak efficacy was observed at one to two years of treatment with finasteride.
This observation of an apparent peaking effect is likely due, in part, to the previously-reported beneficial effects of finasteride on the hair growth cycle based on a phototrichogram study [26]. In that study, initiation of finasteride treatment was shown to increase the number of anagen-phase hairs and to increase the anagen to telogen ratio, consistent with normalization of the growth cycles of previously miniaturized hairs due to the release of hair follicles from the inhibitory effects of DHT [26]. Consistent with these results, finasteride treatment was also shown to increase the growth rate and/or thickness of hairs, based on analysis of serial hair weight measurements [27].
Because these beneficial changes in the hair growth cycle are dependent on when therapy with finasteride is initiated and occur rapidly, the affected hairs are driven to cycle in a synchronous manner.
If these hairs have somewhat similar anagen phase durations, they would enter telogen phase as the anagen (and catagen) phase ended, followed by subsequent shedding, in a partially synchronized fashion.
This would be expected to produce a gradual decline from peak hair count after a period of time equal to the average anagen phase duration. Eventually, as subsequent growth cycles recurred, these hairs would be expected to become increasingly independent, thereby losing their synchronous character as their growth cycles further normalized over time, leading to a sustained increase in hair count at a plateau above baseline, as suggested by the 5-year data presented here"
At start taking finasteride many hairs enter anagen (growth) and after a time (2,3,4 years, according to the length of your anagen phase), these hairs would enter then telogen phase and would fall posteriorly in a partially synchronized fashion .Later, with subsequent hair cycles the thing would go back to normal.
So at some point you will suffer a big shed period for that then these hairs out of sync resulting in more natural cycles.
This leads me to wonder if all these post of loss of effectiveness tend to see the 2,3,4 years are due to the timing of the fall and what we should do in those cases where good results would come to expect that everything is stable.
Does anyone has this happened?
